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    134 comments  ·  Public » Calling  ·  Flag idea as inappropriate…  ·  Admin →
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    Does this take into account recording based upon legal restrictions (like 1/2/all/no-party consent, which varies based upon each locality you may be within) or is there some loop-hole around that?

    For example, let's say Company A is legally allowed to record in a local jurisdiction (w/o requiring to notify anyone beforehand) calls party B (may even be a member of Company A, which may complicate things more), and party B (in his current jurisdiction, legally isn't allowed to be involved with, or take part in, any privately-recorded call, otherwise is considered an affiliate in such crime) answers the call on his personal phone/computer, while unknowingly getting his voice recorded, tells Company A to $uck @ff and d!e, or worse. Let's say Party/Company A decides to post this content to some public site with information about such person and friends/family/etc. find out, he get's ridiculed/yada-yada. Granted, Party B needs some anger management classes, but which parties can be involved / sopeana'd in a legal matter? Answer, all of them (even Microsoft as the service provider, but they surely don't mind a fine compared to the cost they made from people/organizations purchasing Office 365 licenses, etc), but that's where the start of the complicated battlefield is!

    I mean, this is a serious question, granted a highly-exaggerated scenario. But the point to make is the same.

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